So to say, as was to be shown.
Thus we see, dear Vladimir: in the frame freely falling in
a homogeneous field, actually, the same laws of dynamics work as in IRFs. If we dont
go into details of translation from IRF to non-IRF and back, if with it we omit the issue
of translation between the open and closed frames, we will find no problem in, how the
laws of dynamics work. And I showed you above, relativists have no intention to
interrelate IRFs and non-IRFs. They feel well that the laws of kinematics and dynamics
work in a freely falling frame, to introduce in this frame the 4-D interval and Lorentz
transforms. And they dont care of possibility to limit the motion by some surface in
the time of freely falling frame. In the field of mythical black holes their frame can
fall infinitely long time, and in it, as relativists say, the same laws of mechanics that
they took from IRFs have to be locally true.
Here is another difficulty, dear Vladimir. Relativists
accounted a very interesting feature of laws of dynamics in a freely falling frame which
was disregarded by supporters of classical formalism. But they did not account that this
correspondence of laws is true in classical mechanics in absence of transformation of
space and time. Notice, we have analysed different aspects of translation and always
premised as obvious (oh, again this obvious!) that the time goes similarly in
both frames, that ' is measured in the same measure units as , that the mass
of a body is independent of speed. And we yielded a good correspondence; it differed only
because it is unaccustomed from the usual view in classical physics. At the same time we
never exceeded the limits of classical formalism and yielded unexpected solutions within
the usual mathematical tool and usual regularities. Relativists have not such advantages
which allowed us to prove so easily the correspondence of laws in IRFs and non-IRFs. In
their formalism, both spatial and temporal parameters are transformed even in passing from
one IRF to another. This means, to prove the correspondence of laws, relativists might not
rely on the basis which they essentially changed. They had to prove the correspondence
within their phenomenology and their mathematical formalism, hadnt they?
VLADIMIR: Our dialogue about understanding of formulas
(6.38)(6.44) clearly came to a deadlock, as you are saying, the
conservation law has been written for internal processes. And here reveals itself not an
indefiniteness of proof in the paper but just the inertia of obviousness which
prevents to see the sense of written literally in the meaning put to the text.
I am ready to stop protesting at the point that when reading the text, I as a reader
inadequately understood what the authors would like to say; and you authors can decide for
yourselves, whether you will correct your text with my comments.
Now, after your explanation, I understood what you would
like to say, comparing the bodies motion from the inertial and freely falling
frames. You would like to say that in the frame freely falling
in a homogeneous field, actually, the same laws of dynamics work as in IRFs.
With this I agree, but I would add that the homogeneous field of gravity
forces is a mere mathematical model that roughly idealises the reality. The
physicist has to say yes, physical effect of likeness of laws is present, but they
are not exhaustively same, as it is present in a short interval of time and at physically
unrealisable conditions.
Special thanks for the considered problem with the force,
it is pretty good. None the less, I believe, the expectation that
in passing from inertial frame to non-inertial frame, the conservation laws have to fail
even in homogeneous gravity fields did not mislead you, as in classical
physics we always think that when the observer passes from IRF to non-IRF, it is same as
to introduce an acceleration, i.e. the external affection, that appeared here from
nowhere. The fact that when considering some models of interaction in non-IRFs,
conservation laws for internal interactions within the set work, does not exclude the fact
that on the whole, the interacting bodies of set in IRF non-IRF translation gain
acceleration which you had to compensate in the initial problem by a homogeneous
gravity field. But then the conservation laws became true in a freely falling frame
and untrue in IRF, i.e. the result of translation is same. While the form of dynamic laws
remains only in particular cases and under some limitations of which we said above. In
general case of non-IRF, neither laws of dynamics nor conservation laws remain true.
However, maybe we differently understand the word translation.
SERGEY: However it would sound strange for you, dear
Vladimir, despite your well grounded conclusions, I am far from the thought that we came
to a deadlock. Im even sure, we are in a good progress to understand the main target
to reveal, how much possible and legal it was when relativists introduced the
equivalence between the laws in IRFs and non-IRFs. And we do agree with each other. The
same as you, I believe that the laws of dynamics are highly limited in a freely falling
frame, they are true just in a homogeneous field and exceptionally for material bodies.
For fields the equivalence is broken, and we showed it in the subsection 6.4.2.4 of our work.
Furthermore, both in the work and now, the translation of laws between IRFs and non-IRFs
has been shown true, as opposite to relativists who postulated this equivalence, referring
only to the acceleration of free fall that is same for all bodies located in a homogeneous
gravity field.
But just as I pointed you in the beginning of our
dialogue, now I would like to draw your attention again: we not simply analyse the
possibility to introduce the equivalence between the inertial and freely falling frames.
In classical physics we, generally, have not a great necessity in it, as well as the
proofs that we gave in the paper and that I gave now in this dialogue are not complicated.
Yes, this is an interesting regularity worth for attention of classical physics, the
scientists to be not repeating from generation to generation same computations and, so to
say, to do not invent a bike again. But with this all, classical physics has no necessity
to establish the equivalence which would considerably change something in the formalism,
because all translations are derivable in frames of same classical formalism. With the
proof we, you and me, automatically defined the limitations in which the translations are
correct.
In the relativistic formalism, and I already said
of it, the equivalence is the matter of principle. If in a freely falling frame the
laws of dynamics are true, relativists say that SRT can be locally translated into GRT and
postulates of SRT generalised onto gravity fields. If such translation of laws is
impossible, all constructions of GRT based on 4-D metric of Poincare Minkowski
Einstein appear senseless, and tensor representation of curvature, geodetics
introduced by them or kinematical limitation of laws of dynamics are of no help. The
question factually is, whether relativists may use the joined representation of
space-time, doing not limiting themselves to IRFs and uniform motions. This first of all
is the question, whether all tensor representations are true in the Riemann space, as the
matter is of dimensionality and properties of metric which they will then wrap by the
gravity field.
We also dont touch here the issue of approximate
idealisation of mechanics. We compare and oppose not real but ideal mechanics. Perhaps you
will not argue that Newton laws, as well as conservation laws that follow from them, in a
definite meaning also are approximate, because of non-ideal interaction, energy
dissipation, imperfect surface etc. The same, two bodies in the field of Earth will not
fall simultaneously, and the difference will be caused by the degree of air resistance.
Moreover, you will not argue that in some cases one of bodies or both can fall not down
but upwards, against the gravity force, and without visible external affection. This does
not cause you thinking that the gravity laws are wrong for such bodies. You find the
regularities which do not distort the gravity law but simply complicate the model by
additional interactions. In this way we introduce for ourselves a definite difference
between the ideal model and real and versatile processes in nature. With it we use the
laws of dynamics thinking them true in the very ideal system where dissipation is absent,
all interactions are absolutely elastic and surfaces have a shape given by the
mathematical equations, true? So we may not, using some idealisation in classical
representation, disprove Relativity, proceeding from the non-ideality in real processes,
may we?
The same with the issue that relativists are interested
not in the very fact of translation but in the fact that the laws of dynamics are true in
the frame freely falling in the homogeneous gravity field. I will try to explain you it on
a simple example. Suppose, living in Moscow, you studied theoretically and experimentally
the work of laws of dynamics, with account of a definite idealisation. Now you forward a
task to see how these laws work in Vladivostok, thousands miles away from Moscow. You pack
up your experimental devices, take a train and go to the Pacific ocean. In some time you
arrive Vladivostok, unpack your devices and make sure, in this town the laws of dynamics
are same workable. Are you interesting during this journey, how many points and stations
have you passed, how these points work and which rules of railway make your journey
secure? Hardly. You are interested in the very target to transfer your devices to
Vladivostok.
I would immediately point, agreeing with your objection:
this approach is fragmentary; to build a good theory, we have not only to point the start
and finish but to prove our way legal, i.e. to build yourself the railway, advancing from
Moscow to Vladivostok. Basically, this is what we did, proving our transfers legal. But
you know, relativists do not sequentially prove in frames of formal logic they
simply use the results which classical physics has developed directly or indirectly. So
they dont build the railway, they use the way of classical physics and forget,
classical physics built the ways of its formalism in frames of its phenomenology.
Relativists have other formalism, and if we approach the issue with rigour, they would
have to prove the possibility to travel safely their own way and you see, they
avoid this issue silently. This is why I say, we are not in a deadlock. We long ago and
safely have reached Vladivostok and showed, the laws of dynamics in frames of classical
conception are there same, and we showed the limits in which this equivalence will be
true. What will be interesting for everyone to fill in the gap and to show which
way relativists have built with their postulates and why they dont want go their
way, and this is what I would like to consider with you, being sure that all other
arguments, until we are discussing in premise that relativists travel the way of classical
physics, are fruitless. Arent you against such approach? |